Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?

• A. Experiencing delusions.
• B. Male gender.
• C. Previous violent behavior.
• D. A history of being in prison.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.

2. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI)?

• A. Antibiotic Therapy
• B. Hydration
• C. Pain Management
• D. Patient Education

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing and managing a patient with a suspected UTI, the priority is to start antibiotic therapy to treat the infection. Antibiotics are crucial in eliminating the bacteria causing the UTI. While hydration is important to help flush out the bacteria, pain management can help alleviate discomfort but is not the primary treatment. Patient education is vital for prevention and management but is not the immediate intervention required for a suspected UTI.

3. A client expresses doubt about the benefits of surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Ask the client to explain why they believe the surgery won't help.
• B. Comment on the client's doubt regarding the procedure's benefits.
• C. Assure the client that everything will be fine.
• D. Acknowledge the client's uncertainty about the surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the client's expressed uncertainty about the surgery. By acknowledging the client's feelings, the nurse validates their concerns and opens the door for further discussion. This approach can help build trust and rapport with the client. Option A focuses more on seeking justification for the client's belief rather than addressing the underlying emotion. Option B, while acknowledging doubt, does not directly address the client's feelings. Option C, although well-intentioned, dismisses the client's concerns without exploring them further.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

Similar Questions