LPN LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A client with dysphagia and at risk for aspiration needs care planning. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Encourage the client to drink thickened liquids.
- B. Instruct the client to swallow with chin tucked.
- C. Provide the client with a cup with a lid.
- D. Place the client in Fowler's position for meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing the client in Fowler's position is crucial in preventing aspiration as it helps maintain an open airway and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the lungs during swallowing. This position promotes safer swallowing and minimizes the chances of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are less effective interventions for preventing aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink thickened liquids may help, but the position is more critical. Instructing the client to swallow with chin tucked is beneficial for some individuals but not as effective as positioning. Providing a cup with a lid does not directly address the risk of aspiration associated with dysphagia.
2. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about foot care, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Soak your feet in hot water every day.
- B. Apply lotion between your toes.
- C. Inspect your feet daily.
- D. Use over-the-counter products to remove corns.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inspecting the feet daily is crucial for clients with diabetes mellitus to detect early signs of injury or infection promptly. This practice helps prevent serious complications such as diabetic foot ulcers. Soaking feet in hot water daily can lead to skin dryness and increase the risk of injury. Applying lotion between toes can cause moisture buildup, leading to fungal infections. Using over-the-counter products to remove corns can result in skin damage and should be done under healthcare provider supervision.
3. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?
- A. Discard the first voiding.
- B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
- C. Collect the first voiding.
- D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.
4. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Increased skin turgor
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.
5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a high-fiber diet. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?
- A. White bread
- B. Canned fruit
- C. Cheese
- D. Brown rice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Brown rice is a whole grain that is high in fiber, making it an excellent choice for a high-fiber diet. Foods like white bread, canned fruit, and cheese are typically low in fiber and would not be the best recommendation for a high-fiber diet. White bread is processed and lacks the fiber content found in whole grains like brown rice. Canned fruit, although containing some fiber, often has added sugars and lower fiber content compared to fresh fruits. Cheese is a dairy product that is generally low in fiber and not a significant source of dietary fiber compared to whole grains.
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