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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

2. A nurse is delegating the collection of a sputum specimen to an assistive personnel (AP). At which of the following times should the nurse instruct the AP to collect the specimen?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'As soon as the client awakens in the morning.' Sputum specimens should be collected early in the morning to obtain a concentrated sample. This timing ensures that the specimen is less diluted, providing a more accurate analysis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for collecting a sputum specimen, which is in the morning.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

4. What intervention is essential for a client with dehydration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oral rehydration solutions is essential for a client with dehydration as it helps replenish lost fluids and electrolytes directly through the oral route. Monitoring electrolyte levels regularly (Choice A) is important but not as essential as providing immediate rehydration. Increasing fluid intake to maintain hydration (Choice C) may not be sufficient for a client already dehydrated and needing rapid replenishment. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is a more invasive intervention typically reserved for severe cases of dehydration or when the client cannot tolerate oral fluids.

5. What are the complications of untreated fluid overload?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Untreated fluid overload can lead to complications such as pulmonary edema and congestive heart failure. Pulmonary edema occurs when excess fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to difficulty breathing and potentially life-threatening respiratory distress. Congestive heart failure can result from the heart's inability to pump effectively due to the excess fluid volume, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypertension, liver failure, pulmonary embolism, and dehydration are not the primary complications directly associated with untreated fluid overload.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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