LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor and report?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Persistent cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Persistent cough. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to commonly cause a persistent cough as an adverse effect due to its effect on bradykinin levels. Clients should be instructed to monitor for a persistent cough and report it promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are not typical adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.
2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid taking antacids with this medication.
- C. Monitor your pulse rate daily.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor your pulse rate daily.' Monitoring the pulse rate daily is crucial when taking digoxin as it helps in early detection of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause toxicity, which may manifest as changes in the heart rate, making monitoring the pulse rate an essential part of managing the medication. It is important for the client to be aware of their normal pulse rate and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to monitoring its effects. Avoiding antacids is relevant for some medications, but not a key concern with digoxin. Increasing potassium-rich foods may interact with digoxin due to its effect on potassium levels, but monitoring the pulse rate is a more direct and immediate need for safety.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
- B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
- C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
- D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.
4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Monitor for muscle weakness.
- C. Eat foods high in potassium.
- D. Expect weight gain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.
5. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Creatinine
- C. Blood glucose
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
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