LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client with a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. 'I should take this medication in the evening.'
- B. 'I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.'
- C. 'I should expect my urine to be red-orange while taking this medication.'
- D. 'I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking simvastatin in the evening is recommended because cholesterol synthesis increases at night. This timing maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in lowering cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice should be avoided with certain statins, but simvastatin is not significantly affected by grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect as red-orange urine is not an expected side effect of simvastatin. Choice D is incorrect because simvastatin is typically prescribed for managing cholesterol levels and may not need to be taken for the rest of the client's life.
2. A client is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Urine output
- B. Pupil reaction
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 3,000/mm3
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- D. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.
4. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Increase your intake of folic acid.
- D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.
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