lpn pharmacology practice test LPN Pharmacology Practice Test - Nursing Elites
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LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the provider include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, an important consideration is preventing hypokalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods is crucial to maintain adequate potassium levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of furosemide, monitoring weight daily may not be directly related to the medication, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain medications that interact with grapefruit juice, not furosemide.

2. When teaching a client about the adverse effects of simvastatin, which of the following findings should be included as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain should be included as an adverse effect when teaching a client about simvastatin. It can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a severe side effect associated with statins like simvastatin that involves muscle breakdown. Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial to prevent serious complications and ensure timely intervention. Tinnitus, diarrhea, and facial flushing are not typically associated with simvastatin use and are less common adverse effects compared to muscle pain.

3. A client is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.

4. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Dizziness is a sign of hypotension, a potential adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension. Hypotension is a serious side effect that can lead to complications such as falls and injuries. Reporting dizziness promptly is crucial to prevent any harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with enalapril use and are less concerning compared to the potential implications of hypotension indicated by dizziness.

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