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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to impaired potassium excretion. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) refers to low blood sugar levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical concern in chronic kidney disease.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer it intramuscularly
- B. Monitor APTT levels
- C. Give it in the abdomen
- D. Administer rapidly
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to give enoxaparin in the abdomen. Enoxaparin is usually administered subcutaneously in the abdomen to avoid muscle irritation. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice B is incorrect as monitoring APTT levels is not directly related to administering enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as enoxaparin should be administered slowly to prevent bruising or bleeding at the injection site.
3. A nurse is providing education to a client about a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for increased heart rate
- B. Take the medication at the same time every day
- C. It should be stopped abruptly
- D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication at the same time every day.' Clients should take digoxin at the same time each day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels, enhancing the drug's effectiveness and minimizing fluctuations in blood concentration. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin, as a medication, may actually help in controlling the heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin should never be stopped abruptly due to the risk of rebound effects and worsening of the condition. Choice D is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as it is more relevant to medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Pale skin
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause drowsiness
- B. It has no side effects
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It can be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.
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