pn ati capstone pharmacology 1 quiz PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz - Nursing Elites
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the client a carbohydrate snack. When a client is experiencing hypoglycemia, the priority intervention is to raise their blood glucose levels quickly. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower the blood glucose levels and is contra-indicated in this situation. Calling for assistance (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over addressing the low blood sugar. Monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important but not the initial action needed to raise blood glucose levels rapidly.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The MMR vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant women due to the risk of fetal harm. It is recommended that women avoid becoming pregnant for at least 4 weeks after receiving the vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberry, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of accessory muscles.' Clients with COPD often experience airway obstruction, leading to the use of accessory muscles to breathe. This compensatory mechanism helps them overcome the increased work of breathing. Choice A, 'Decreased respiratory rate,' is incorrect because clients with COPD typically have an increased respiratory rate due to the need for more effort to breathe. Choice C, 'Improved lung sounds,' is incorrect because COPD is characterized by wheezes, crackles, and diminished breath sounds. Choice D, 'Increased energy levels,' is incorrect because clients with COPD often experience fatigue due to the increased work of breathing and impaired gas exchange.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.

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