ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of sertraline. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess first?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Mood changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering sertraline, assessing blood pressure is crucial as this medication can potentially affect blood pressure levels. Monitoring blood pressure before giving sertraline helps ensure patient safety and allows for appropriate interventions if any significant changes are noted. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and mood changes are important assessments but are not typically the first priority when administering sertraline. While heart rate and respiratory rate can also be affected by sertraline, blood pressure assessment is a higher priority due to the medication's known effects on blood pressure regulation.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
- A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
- B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
- C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.
3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 3,000/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 250,000/mm³
- D. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm³. A WBC count of 3,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm³, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and is experiencing opioid withdrawals. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Hypotonia
- B. Moderate tremors of the extremities
- C. Axillary temperature 36.1°C (96.9°F)
- D. Excessive crying
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate tremors of the extremities. In newborns experiencing opioid withdrawals, moderate tremors of the extremities are a common sign. Other signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns may include irritability, feeding difficulties, and gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice A, hypotonia, is not typically associated with opioid withdrawal in newborns. Choice C, an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (96.9°F), falls within the normal range for newborns and is not specifically indicative of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, excessive crying, is not a typical sign of opioid withdrawal in newborns.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who repeatedly refuses meals. The nurse overhears an assistive personnel telling the client, “If you don’t eat, I’ll put restraints on your wrists and feed you.” The nurse should intervene and explain to the AP that this statement constitutes which of the following torts?
- A. Assault
- B. Battery
- C. Malpractice
- D. Negligence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault is the act of threatening a client with harm, such as the threat of using restraints to force-feed the client, even if no physical contact occurs. In this scenario, the statement made by the assistive personnel constitutes assault because it involves the threat of harm. Choice B, Battery, involves actual physical contact without the client's consent, which is not present in the scenario. Choice C, Malpractice, refers to professional negligence or misconduct, not a direct threat to the client. Choice D, Negligence, involves failure to provide reasonable care that results in harm, which is not applicable in this context.
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