a nurse is preparing to administer a dose of sertraline which of the following should the nurse assess first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of sertraline. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering sertraline, assessing blood pressure is crucial as this medication can potentially affect blood pressure levels. Monitoring blood pressure before giving sertraline helps ensure patient safety and allows for appropriate interventions if any significant changes are noted. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and mood changes are important assessments but are not typically the first priority when administering sertraline. While heart rate and respiratory rate can also be affected by sertraline, blood pressure assessment is a higher priority due to the medication's known effects on blood pressure regulation.

2. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

4. A client is being educated about using an intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client should check for the string each month after menstruation to ensure the IUD is in place. This practice helps in identifying any displacement of the IUD. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A is incorrect because IUDs have different durations depending on the type, not all require yearly replacement. B is incorrect because IUDs do not require spermicide for effectiveness. C is incorrect because while some individuals may experience changes in their menstrual patterns, it is not guaranteed that periods will stop while using an IUD.

5. A nurse enters a client's room and sees smoke coming from the trash can. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to evacuate the room first. In a fire situation, the priority is safety, following the RACE protocol: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Evacuating the room ensures the safety of both the client and the nurse. Closing the window (Choice A) can wait until after evacuation when there is no immediate danger. Calling the fire department (Choice C) is important but comes after ensuring personal safety and evacuating. Attempting to extinguish the fire (Choice D) is not recommended as it can put the nurse and the client at risk; firefighting should be left to professionals.

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