ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and is receiving magnesium sulfate via IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?
- A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
- C. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
- D. BUN 20 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine output of 20 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity because decreased urine output can lead to accumulation of magnesium. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, high systolic blood pressure, and normal BUN levels do not specifically point towards magnesium toxicity.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause drowsiness
- B. It has no side effects
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It can be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.
3. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?
- A. Wipe from front to back after urination
- B. Drink 2-3 liters of water per day
- C. Avoid holding urine for long periods
- D. Wear loose-fitting underwear
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.
4. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit physical activity
- B. Monitor fetal movements daily
- C. Call the healthcare provider if contractions begin
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with placenta previa are at an increased risk of bleeding and preterm labor. Therefore, it is essential for them to limit physical activity to prevent complications. Monitoring fetal movements daily helps in assessing the well-being of the fetus. Additionally, notifying the healthcare provider if contractions begin is crucial as it could be a sign of preterm labor. Therefore, all of the instructions (limiting physical activity, monitoring fetal movements, and calling the healthcare provider if contractions begin) are necessary for managing placenta previa effectively. Choices A, B, and C are all correct instructions for a client with placenta previa.
5. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
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