a nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis to prevent injury the nurse should instruct the client to
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis. To prevent injury, the nurse should instruct the client to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises strengthen bones and help prevent fractures, which is crucial for clients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline and avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods are general recommendations for preventing musculoskeletal issues but are not specific to osteoporosis. Splinting the affected area is not a standard practice for managing osteoporosis and preventing fractures.

2. When providing education on the use of insulin, what should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before administration. This step is crucial to ensure the correct dose of insulin is administered based on the current blood glucose level. Choice A is incorrect as insulin usually needs to be stored in the refrigerator and has an expiration date. Choice C is incorrect because insulin can be short-acting, rapid-acting, intermediate-acting, or long-acting. Choice D is also incorrect as insulin can have side effects such as hypoglycemia if the dose is too high.

3. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

4. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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