ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?
- A. Client with cystic fibrosis who has a thick productive cough and reports thirst
- B. Client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
- C. Client with diabetes mellitus who has a morning fasting glucose of 185 mg/dL
- D. Client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should report the client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused to the provider first. Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis may indicate dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, both of which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. The other options indicate important assessments that require intervention but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
2. A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Use basic gloves and a mask.
- B. Choose the highest level of protection equipment available.
- C. Use only respiratory protection.
- D. Ask a colleague for advice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.
3. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing neutropenia. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client's education?
- A. Track oral temperature weekly
- B. Gardening is a good form of mild exercise
- C. Avoid crowded events
- D. Eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with neutropenia have a weakened immune system, making them susceptible to infections. Avoiding crowded events helps reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens, thereby minimizing the chance of infections. Tracking oral temperature is important for detecting fever early, which is a sign of infection and requires immediate medical attention. While gardening can be a good form of exercise, clients with neutropenia should avoid it due to the risk of exposure to bacteria and fungi present in soil. Eating fresh fruits and vegetables is generally encouraged for overall health but may carry a risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with neutropenia.
4. What is the nurse's next action after a laboring client's membranes have just ruptured?
- A. Assess fetal heart rate pattern
- B. Monitor uterine contractions
- C. Administer oxygen
- D. Prepare for delivery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a laboring client's membranes have ruptured, the nurse's immediate priority is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This assessment is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress, especially to rule out umbilical cord compression that could affect blood flow to the fetus. While monitoring uterine contractions is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence in this situation as it directly reflects the fetus's well-being. Administering oxygen may be necessary later depending on the fetal status, and preparing for delivery should only occur if the assessment indicates fetal distress or other complications. Therefore, the correct next action for the nurse is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?
- A. Sunken anterior fontanel
- B. Tenting skin turgor
- C. Flat anterior fontanel
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.
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