Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.

2. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of adolescents. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Expect pain in the testicles during self-examination.
• B. The testicles should be uniform in size and shape when examined.
• C. Expect testicles to be uniform in consistency when performing a testicular self-examination.
• D. The testicles will shrink if cancer is present.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because during a testicular self-examination, it is crucial to note a uniform consistency of the testicles. Any lumps, changes in size, or inconsistencies should be reported to a healthcare provider promptly. Choice A is incorrect because pain is not typically expected during a testicular self-examination. Choice B is incorrect as uniform size and shape are not as relevant as uniform consistency. Choice D is incorrect; testicular cancer usually causes enlargement rather than shrinking of the testicles.

3. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

• A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
• B. Probable sign of pregnancy
• C. Positive sign of pregnancy
• D. Possible sign of pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer 2.5 mL of medication intramuscularly to an adult client. Which site is safest for the nurse to use?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Dorsogluteal
• C. Vastus lateralis
• D. Rectus femoris

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ventrogluteal.' The ventrogluteal site is recommended for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury or complications. Choice B, 'Dorsogluteal,' is not recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels. Choices C and D, 'Vastus lateralis' and 'Rectus femoris,' are sites commonly used for intramuscular injections but are more suitable for pediatric or specific population groups, not typically for adults.

5. A charge nurse is planning care for a group of patients on a med-surg unit. What task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Measure hourly urinary output for the postoperative patient.
• B. Administer medications to stable patients.
• C. Reinforce patient education.
• D. Initiate a care plan for a new patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assistive personnel can be assigned to measure and document urinary output, a routine task within their scope of practice. Administering medications (choice B) requires a higher level of training and should be done by licensed nurses. Reinforcing patient education (choice C) involves providing information and ensuring patient understanding, which is typically done by licensed healthcare providers. Initiating a care plan (choice D) involves critical thinking and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.

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