Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.

2. A nurse is monitoring a client during an IV urography procedure. Which of the following client reports is the priority finding?

• A. Feeling flushed and warm
• B. Abdominal fullness
• C. Swollen lips
• D. Metallic taste in the mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Swollen lips indicate a potential allergic reaction or anaphylaxis to the contrast dye used during the procedure, which requires immediate medical intervention. Abdominal fullness and metallic taste are common side effects of IV urography and can be managed without urgent intervention. Feeling flushed and warm may also be a common reaction during the procedure and does not indicate a life-threatening situation like an allergic reaction.

3. When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Signs of diarrhea
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which food selection indicates an understanding of dietary teaching?

• A. Cottage cheese
• B. Tuna salad
• C. Rice with black beans
• D. Three-egg omelet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit animal proteins due to their high ammonia content, which can exacerbate symptoms. Plant-based proteins like beans are preferred as they help reduce ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and D contain animal proteins that are not ideal for clients with hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of depression. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Changes in sleep patterns
• C. Weight loss
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of depression, healthcare professionals should look for changes in sleep patterns and weight loss. These are common symptoms associated with depression. Increased energy (choice A) is not typically a sign of depression, as individuals with depression often experience fatigue and a lack of energy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.

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