LPN LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).
2. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will keep my nitroglycerin tablets in the original glass bottle.
- B. I will sit or lie down when I take a nitroglycerin tablet.
- C. I will take a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain persists, up to a total of 3 tablets.
- D. I can swallow the nitroglycerin tablet with a glass of water if it does not dissolve quickly.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed; they must dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Choice A is correct as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original glass container to prevent degradation. Choice B is correct as sitting or lying down when taking a nitroglycerin tablet helps prevent dizziness or fainting due to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice C is correct as taking a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 tablets is the correct protocol for managing angina symptoms.
3. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?
- A. Serum troponin
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.
4. When providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the evening.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Increase your intake of grapefruit juice.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin is to take the medication in the evening. Atorvastatin is more effective when taken at night because cholesterol synthesis is higher during this time. This timing helps optimize the drug's cholesterol-lowering effects and enhances its overall efficacy in managing lipid levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking atorvastatin with food can decrease its absorption, grapefruit juice can interact with atorvastatin leading to increased side effects, and there is no specific need to avoid dairy products while on atorvastatin unless instructed otherwise by the healthcare provider.
5. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.
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