LPN LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The client is reinforcing teaching for peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?
- A. I will keep my legs elevated on pillows while resting.
- B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
- C. I will wear tight compression stockings to improve circulation.
- D. I will apply heat to my legs to relieve pain and improve circulation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Crossing the legs can further impede blood flow in clients with PAD, worsening symptoms. Avoiding leg crossing helps maintain adequate blood flow and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral artery disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the legs, wearing tight compression stockings, and applying heat can exacerbate symptoms in PAD by restricting blood flow or causing potential harm.
2. The client with a history of angina pectoris is being discharged after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
- B. I will call the doctor if I develop a fever or drainage from my incisions.
- C. I will take my pain medication before doing any activities that might cause discomfort.
- D. I can resume my normal activities, including driving, as soon as I feel like it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because after CABG surgery, patients need to follow specific guidelines for resuming activities, and driving is typically restricted for a certain period to ensure safety and proper recovery. Resuming normal activities too soon, including driving, can pose risks to the client's health and safety. It is essential to emphasize to the client the importance of following the healthcare provider's recommendations regarding activity restrictions post-surgery to prevent complications and promote optimal recovery. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that align with post-CABG discharge instructions, emphasizing the importance of avoiding heavy lifting, monitoring for signs of infection, and managing pain effectively.
3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should reinforce which dietary instruction?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- B. Increase intake of dairy products.
- C. Limit intake of foods high in fiber.
- D. Increase protein intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to keep the medication's effectiveness stable. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to avoid these foods to ensure the therapeutic effects of warfarin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy products, limiting fiber intake, or increasing protein intake do not directly impact the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and are not necessary dietary modifications for clients on this medication.
4. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Increase fluid intake.
- D. Expect a metallic taste in the mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metformin is to increase fluid intake. This is crucial to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of metformin. Adequate hydration can also help reduce the risk of kidney problems associated with metformin use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it's generally recommended to take metformin with food to reduce stomach upset, monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia is more relevant for other antidiabetic medications, and a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of metformin.
5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
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