LPN LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).
2. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
- C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
- D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.
3. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. The nurse should check which parameter before administering the medication?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a thiazide diuretic to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so assessing the client's blood pressure prior to administration helps to monitor the effectiveness of the medication and to ensure the client's safety. Checking the serum potassium level (Choice A), heart rate (Choice C), or serum sodium level (Choice D) are also important parameters in the care of a client on a thiazide diuretic, but the priority assessment before administering the medication is the blood pressure to evaluate the drug's effectiveness in managing hypertension.
5. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?
- A. Serum troponin
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.
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