LPN LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.
2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Echocardiogram
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm a myocardial infarction. An ECG provides immediate information on cardiac function and can show characteristic changes indicative of a myocardial infarction, such as ST-segment elevation or depression. An echocardiogram (Choice A) is useful for assessing heart structure and function but is not typically used as the primary test for confirming an acute myocardial infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice C) may show certain changes in heart size or pulmonary congestion but is not the primary diagnostic test for MI. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice D) provides information about the cellular components of blood and is not specific to confirming a myocardial infarction.
3. What preoperative instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy?
- A. You will need to be NPO after midnight before the surgery.
- B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after the surgery.
- C. You will be able to eat and drink normally after the procedure.
- D. You can take all of your prescribed medications the morning of surgery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct preoperative instruction that the LPN/LVN should reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy is being NPO after midnight before the surgery. This instruction is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure a safe procedure. Avoiding oral intake helps reduce the risk of complications during anesthesia induction and the surgical process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding deep breathing and coughing, resuming normal eating and drinking, and taking all prescribed medications the morning of surgery are not recommended preoperative instructions for a carotid endarterectomy.
4. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
- A. Avoid engaging in sexual activity for at least 6 weeks.
- B. Engage in moderate physical activity daily.
- C. Take prescribed medications even if you feel well.
- D. Return to work only when medically cleared.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client after a myocardial infarction is to continue taking prescribed medications even if they feel well. This is essential in preventing another myocardial infarction or other complications. Discontinuing medications prematurely can be detrimental to the client's recovery and may increase the risk of further cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because engaging in sexual activity, physical activity, or returning to work are important aspects of the client's recovery, but not as crucial as ensuring medication compliance to prevent further cardiac issues.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium chloride supplementation aims to increase potassium levels in individuals with hypokalemia. However, excessive administration can lead to hyperkalemia, which can be a serious and potentially life-threatening complication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent this adverse outcome. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is the condition being treated, so it is not a complication of treatment. Hypernatremia (Choice C) refers to high sodium levels and is not directly related to the administration of potassium chloride. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not a common complication associated with potassium chloride administration in hypokalemia.
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