ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Echocardiogram
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm a myocardial infarction. An ECG provides immediate information on cardiac function and can show characteristic changes indicative of a myocardial infarction, such as ST-segment elevation or depression. An echocardiogram (Choice A) is useful for assessing heart structure and function but is not typically used as the primary test for confirming an acute myocardial infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice C) may show certain changes in heart size or pulmonary congestion but is not the primary diagnostic test for MI. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice D) provides information about the cellular components of blood and is not specific to confirming a myocardial infarction.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.
3. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Tremors
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.
4. When providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the evening.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Increase your intake of grapefruit juice.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin is to take the medication in the evening. Atorvastatin is more effective when taken at night because cholesterol synthesis is higher during this time. This timing helps optimize the drug's cholesterol-lowering effects and enhances its overall efficacy in managing lipid levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking atorvastatin with food can decrease its absorption, grapefruit juice can interact with atorvastatin leading to increased side effects, and there is no specific need to avoid dairy products while on atorvastatin unless instructed otherwise by the healthcare provider.
5. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that this client's tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs appear sunken into his head. Which nursing intervention is indicated?
- A. Help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake.
- B. Obtain an appointment for the client to have an eye examination.
- C. Instruct the client to use oxygen at night and increase humidification.
- D. Schedule the client for tests to determine his sensitivity to cat hair.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's cracked tongue and sunken eyes indicate dehydration. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake. Dehydration can exacerbate the client's emphysema symptoms and lead to further complications. Monitoring and addressing the client's fluid intake is crucial for maintaining his health and well-being. Options B, C, and D are not the immediate priorities in this situation. While an eye examination, oxygen use, and sensitivity tests are relevant aspects of care, addressing dehydration through increased fluid intake takes precedence in this scenario.
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