Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the primary diagnostic tool used to confirm a myocardial infarction. An ECG provides immediate information on cardiac function and can show characteristic changes indicative of a myocardial infarction, such as ST-segment elevation or depression. An echocardiogram (Choice A) is useful for assessing heart structure and function but is not typically used as the primary test for confirming an acute myocardial infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice C) may show certain changes in heart size or pulmonary congestion but is not the primary diagnostic test for MI. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) (Choice D) provides information about the cellular components of blood and is not specific to confirming a myocardial infarction.

2. The healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of nitroglycerin patches for angina pectoris. Which instruction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime to prevent tolerance
• C. Cover the patch with a bandage to keep it in place
• D. Rotate the application site every 24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rotating the application site every 24 hours is crucial when using nitroglycerin patches to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. By rotating the site, the risk of local skin reactions is reduced, and the effectiveness of the nitroglycerin patch is maintained. Applying the patch to the same site each day (Choice A) can lead to skin irritation. Removing the patch at bedtime (Choice B) is not necessary as long as the prescribed wearing schedule is followed. Covering the patch with a bandage (Choice C) is not recommended as it may interfere with proper absorption.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Frequent urination
• B. Dry cough
• C. Tremors
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of enalapril that can indicate the development of angioedema or potentially life-threatening angioedema. An onset of dry cough should be reported to the provider promptly as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Frequent urination, tremors, and dizziness are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be of immediate concern compared to a dry cough in this context.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client with rheumatoid arthritis prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 1,200/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 1,200/mm³ indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of methotrexate that can lead to increased risk of infections. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not represent significant concerns related to methotrexate therapy in this context.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

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