Nursing Elites

1. After a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin, which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
• B. Discontinue the aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears
• C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
• D. Avoid taking aspirin if you are also taking other NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Aspirin can irritate the stomach lining, leading to potential gastrointestinal issues. Taking it with food helps reduce this risk by providing a protective layer in the stomach. This is a common recommendation to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side effects when taking aspirin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not a typical reason to discontinue aspirin, as ringing in the ears is not a common side effect of aspirin. Choice C does not have a direct correlation to minimizing side effects of aspirin. Choice D is inaccurate because while caution should be exercised when taking aspirin with other NSAIDs due to the increased risk of bleeding, it does not mean aspirin should be entirely avoided if other NSAIDs are being taken.

2. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your heart rate daily.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.

3. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Coronary angiography

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

4. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. The nurse should reinforce with the client the importance of reporting which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Headache
• C. Gingival bleeding
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Gingival bleeding.' Gingival bleeding is a common side effect of anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulants work by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot, which can lead to bleeding issues, including gingival bleeding. Nausea, headache, and dizziness are not typically associated with anticoagulant therapy. Since bleeding, including gingival bleeding, can be a serious side effect that requires medical attention, the client should be educated on reporting it promptly to their healthcare provider.

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