LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day.
- B. Restrict fluid intake to 2000 mL per day.
- C. Increase your salt intake to prevent electrolyte imbalance.
- D. Exercise vigorously at least three times a week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day. This instruction is crucial because daily weights help in early detection of fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Monitoring weight is essential for managing heart failure and preventing exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because fluid restriction may be necessary in some cases of heart failure, but a general limit of 2000 mL per day is not appropriate without individual assessment. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake can worsen fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while exercise is beneficial for heart health, vigorous exercise may not be suitable for all heart failure patients and should be tailored to their specific condition.
2. A client is diagnosed with thrombophlebitis. The nurse should tell the client that which prescription is indicated?
- A. Bed rest, with bathroom privileges only
- B. Bed rest, keeping the affected extremity flat
- C. Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity
- D. Bed rest, with the affected extremity in a dependent position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity. Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing thrombophlebitis as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return. By elevating the affected extremity, the gravitational force assists in venous blood flow back to the heart, thereby reducing the risk of complications associated with thrombophlebitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the need for elevation, which is specifically beneficial in the management of thrombophlebitis.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Platelet count
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
4. The client is being taught about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which instruction should be provided?
- A. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
- B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve.
- C. Chew the tablet and then swallow.
- D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct method for administering sublingual nitroglycerin is to place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve. This route of administration facilitates rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream, enabling quick relief of chest pain associated with angina or heart conditions. Choice A is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should not be swallowed whole. Choice C is wrong as chewing the tablet can lead to the rapid release of the drug, causing adverse effects like headaches or dizziness. Choice D is also incorrect as the tablet should not be placed between the cheek and gum, but under the tongue for proper absorption.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Increased urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors. Tremors are a sign of lithium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Increased urination is a common side effect of lithium but not an urgent concern requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is also a common side effect of lithium but does not indicate toxicity. Blurred vision is not typically associated with lithium toxicity; therefore, it is not the priority finding to report.
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