LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
- B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
- C. Clay-colored stools
- D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.
2. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.
3. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain while ambulating in the corridor. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the client's vital signs.
- B. Assist the client to sit or lie down.
- C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
- D. Apply nasal oxygen at a rate of 2 L/min.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris experiences chest pain while ambulating, the priority action for the nurse is to assist the client to sit or lie down. This helps reduce the demand on the heart by decreasing physical exertion. Checking vital signs, administering medication, or applying oxygen can follow once the client is in a more comfortable position. Checking vital signs (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate discomfort by positioning the client comfortably takes precedence. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice C) is appropriate but should come after ensuring the client's comfort. Applying nasal oxygen (Choice D) can be beneficial, but it should not be the first action; assisting the client to sit or lie down is the initial priority.
4. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer oxygen.
- C. Perform continuous ECG monitoring.
- D. Apply a nasal cannula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.
5. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?
- A. Pedal edema that is 3+
- B. Slight residual calf tenderness
- C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
- D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.
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