LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) and is being educated about dietary restrictions. Which food should the client be advised to avoid or eat in consistent amounts?
- A. Bananas
- B. Spinach
- C. Oranges
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. It is important for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent levels of vitamin K intake to ensure the medication works properly. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as spinach, can counteract the effects of warfarin, leading to potential complications. Therefore, clients on warfarin are advised to either avoid or consume vitamin K-rich foods, like spinach, in consistent amounts to maintain the medication's efficacy. Bananas, oranges, and yogurt are not high in vitamin K and do not significantly impact the effectiveness of warfarin, making them safe options for clients taking this medication.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Platelet count
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
3. A client is diagnosed with thrombophlebitis. The nurse should tell the client that which prescription is indicated?
- A. Bed rest, with bathroom privileges only
- B. Bed rest, keeping the affected extremity flat
- C. Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity
- D. Bed rest, with the affected extremity in a dependent position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity. Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing thrombophlebitis as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return. By elevating the affected extremity, the gravitational force assists in venous blood flow back to the heart, thereby reducing the risk of complications associated with thrombophlebitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the need for elevation, which is specifically beneficial in the management of thrombophlebitis.
4. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?
- A. Albumin
- B. Calcium
- C. Glucose
- D. Alkaline phosphatase
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.
5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?
- A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
- B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
- C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
- D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.
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