LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The client needs instruction on using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should be given?
- A. Inhale the medication and then exhale immediately
- B. Exhale fully, then place the inhaler in your mouth and inhale deeply while pressing the canister
- C. Take two short breaths before inhaling the medication
- D. Hold your breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) involves exhaling fully before inhaling deeply while pressing the canister to ensure effective delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling should precede inhaling. Choice C is incorrect as taking two short breaths is not part of the correct technique. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to hold the breath for a specific time after inhaling the medication.
2. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Limit alcohol consumption to one drink per day.
- B. Increase sodium intake to maintain blood pressure.
- C. Exercise vigorously for at least 30 minutes daily.
- D. Avoid high potassium foods like bananas.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake is an essential lifestyle modification recommended for managing hypertension. Excessive alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure, so limiting it to one drink per day is beneficial in controlling hypertension. Alcohol moderation is a key part of a heart-healthy lifestyle for individuals with high blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can actually worsen hypertension by retaining water and increasing blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect because while exercise is important for overall health, moderate-intensity exercise is recommended for individuals with hypertension to avoid excessive strain on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because high potassium foods like bananas are actually beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help lower blood pressure.
3. A client with a history of heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
- B. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.
- C. Report any weight loss of more than 2 pounds in a week.
- D. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for discharge teaching regarding digoxin (Lanoxin) is to advise the client to take their pulse before each dose and to hold the medication if their pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the pulse is crucial to prevent potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because excessive fluid intake can lead to fluid overload, worsening heart failure. Choice C is not directly related to digoxin therapy. Choice D is inaccurate as digoxin is usually taken on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
4. The healthcare provider assesses a client who has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for cardiac disease. Which electrocardiographic change would be a concern for a client taking a diuretic?
- A. Tall, spiked T waves
- B. A prolonged QT interval
- C. A widening QRS complex
- D. Presence of a U wave
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of a U wave is often associated with hypokalemia, a possible side effect of diuretic therapy like furosemide. Hypokalemia can lead to U wave formation on an electrocardiogram, making the presence of U waves a concerning finding in clients taking diuretics. Tall, spiked T waves are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged QT interval is more commonly associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome or certain medications, not specifically with diuretics. A widening QRS complex is usually seen in conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks, rather than being directly related to diuretic use.
5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
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