pn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment 2020 b PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B - Nursing Elites
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.

2. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the decrease in the medication's effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation can impact the absorption and effectiveness of arthritis medication. Bowel inflammation can affect the body's ability to absorb the medication properly, leading to decreased effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to the decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Taking medication with water, skipping doses, or taking anti-inflammatory medication without food may not be ideal practices but are not directly linked to the decrease in effectiveness reported by the client.

4. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacological action of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin mimics the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. This leads to decreased urine output, helping to manage symptoms of diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by excessive thirst and urination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin, slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine, or directly increase blood pressure.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Weight gain, decreased urination, and fatigue are not typical signs of hyperglycemia. Weight gain is more commonly associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or fluid retention. Decreased urination is not a typical symptom of hyperglycemia, as high blood sugar levels usually lead to increased urination. Fatigue can be a symptom of hyperglycemia, but it is not as specific or characteristic as increased thirst.

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