Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods.
• B. Sleep with a pillow under the residual limb.
• C. Elevate the limb continuously for the first 48 hours.
• D. Apply lotion to the residual limb daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods. This is important to prevent contractures from developing in the residual limb. Sleeping with a pillow under the residual limb can contribute to contracture formation rather than prevent it. While elevation of the limb is important for reducing swelling and promoting circulation, continuous elevation for 48 hours is not necessary and may not be practical. Applying lotion to the residual limb daily is generally not recommended immediately post-amputation as the wound site needs to heal without interference from lotions or creams.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
• B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
• C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
• D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be assessed first?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Pain level
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first before administering nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to adverse effects such as dizziness or fainting. Assessing blood pressure before administration helps determine if the patient's blood pressure is within the acceptable range for nitroglycerin administration. Heart rate, pain level, and respiratory rate are also important assessments, but blood pressure should take precedence due to the vasodilating effects of nitroglycerin.

5. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a persistent cough
• B. It is a calcium channel blocker
• C. It is safe during pregnancy
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

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