ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.
2. A charge nurse is preparing an educational session about addictive disorders for nursing staff. Which of the following should the nurse include as an etiological factor of addictive disorder?
- A. Low self-esteem
- B. Family history of addiction
- C. Personality disorders
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Addiction is influenced by various factors, including low self-esteem, family history of addiction, and specific personality traits. Low self-esteem can lead individuals to seek solace in substances, a family history of addiction can increase the likelihood of developing addictive behaviors due to genetic and environmental factors, and certain personality disorders may contribute to addictive tendencies. Therefore, all the factors listed in choices A, B, and C can play a role in the development of addictive disorders. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because addictive disorders are multifactorial, and it is essential to consider a combination of influences rather than isolating a single factor.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
- B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.
4. While caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to use the PCA before dressing changes.
- B. Monitor the client's respiratory status.
- C. Provide oxygen therapy to the client as needed.
- D. Ensure the PCA pump is functioning properly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to use the PCA pump before activities like dressing changes, which are likely to cause pain, to ensure effective pain management. Monitoring the client's respiratory status (Choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing oxygen therapy (Choice C) is not a routine intervention for all clients on PCA unless specifically indicated. Ensuring the PCA pump is functioning properly (Choice D) is essential, but encouraging the client to use the PCA before painful activities takes precedence to manage pain effectively.
5. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Constipation
- C. Infusion reaction
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.
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