ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?
- A. Infection
- B. Airway obstruction
- C. Fluid imbalance
- D. Pain management
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.
2. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?
- A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
- B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
- C. Fortification of bones.
- D. Suppression of candidiasis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.
3. A client who has osteoporosis is being discharged with a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Additionally, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking it to prevent potential adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, but rather in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because the client should remain upright, not lie down, for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
- B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
- C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
- D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because shortness of breath is an indication of transplant rejection, along with other manifestations like fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because immunosuppressant medications are usually taken for life to prevent rejection. Choice C is incorrect as the surgical site may take longer to heal fully. Choice D is incorrect as the initiation of exercise post-heart transplant should be gradual and individualized based on the client's condition.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?
- A. The TPN solution has an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top of the solution.
- B. The TPN solution contains added electrolytes, vitamins, and trace elements.
- C. The bag of TPN was prepared by the pharmacy 12 hours prior.
- D. The bag of TPN is labeled with the client's name, medical record number, and prescription.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.
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