ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A client is experiencing urinary incontinence, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
- A. Drink large amounts of water before bedtime
- B. Perform Kegel exercises regularly
- C. Limit fiber intake in the diet to avoid bowel irritation
- D. Increase intake of caffeinated and carbonated beverages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence is to perform Kegel exercises regularly. These exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, improving bladder control and reducing urinary incontinence. Option A is incorrect because drinking large amounts of water before bedtime can worsen urinary incontinence by increasing urine production. Option C is incorrect as fiber is important for bowel health and limiting it may not be beneficial for the client. Option D is incorrect as caffeinated and carbonated beverages can irritate the bladder and worsen urinary incontinence, so they should be avoided.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased urination
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased thirst is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Weight gain, decreased urination, and fatigue are not typical signs of hyperglycemia. Weight gain is more commonly associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or fluid retention. Decreased urination is not a typical symptom of hyperglycemia, as high blood sugar levels usually lead to increased urination. Fatigue can be a symptom of hyperglycemia, but it is not as specific or characteristic as increased thirst.
3. A nurse is performing a cultural assessment of a group of clients to maintain respect for their value systems and beliefs. Which of the following should the nurse identify as examples of cultural variables?
- A. Eye contact
- B. Personal space
- C. Touch
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a cultural assessment, it is essential to consider various cultural variables that can impact communication and interactions. Eye contact, personal space, and touch are examples of cultural variables that can vary among different cultural groups. These variables influence how individuals perceive and engage in communication. Understanding and respecting these differences are crucial for effective and culturally sensitive care. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them represents a cultural variable that should be considered during a cultural assessment.
4. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?
- A. Encourage high-calorie meals
- B. Administer intravenous fluids
- C. Provide frequent small meals
- D. Limit fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.
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