a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg po two times daily which of the foll
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PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

2. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

3. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education on foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cut toenails straight across. This instruction is vital for clients with diabetes as it helps prevent ingrown toenails and infections, reducing the risk of foot ulcers. Applying lotion between the toes (choice A) should be avoided as it can create a moist environment prone to fungal infections. Using a heating pad (choice C) can lead to burns or injuries due to reduced sensation common in diabetes. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice D) can also increase the risk of skin breakdown and should be avoided.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.

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