ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Take vital signs
- B. Assess lochia
- C. Massage the fundus
- D. Give oxytocin IV bolus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.
2. A community health nurse is reviewing primary prevention for West Nile virus with a group of patients in a rural health clinic. What instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eliminate areas of standing water.
- B. Wear a mask when outdoors.
- C. Ensure food is cooked thoroughly.
- D. Avoid contact with sick individuals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Eliminate areas of standing water.' Standing water provides breeding grounds for mosquitoes, which spread West Nile virus. By eliminating standing water, individuals can reduce the risk of mosquito breeding and the transmission of the virus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Wearing a mask when outdoors, ensuring food is cooked thoroughly, and avoiding contact with sick individuals are not directly related to primary prevention strategies for West Nile virus.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?
- A. Increased urinary output
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer rapidly
- B. Dilute the medication before administration
- C. Give it as a bolus
- D. Administer it intramuscularly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action when administering potassium chloride is to dilute the medication before administration. Potassium chloride is a highly concentrated solution that can cause irritation and potential complications if not properly diluted. Administering it rapidly (choice A) can lead to adverse effects. Giving it as a bolus (choice C) or administering it intramuscularly (choice D) are inappropriate routes for potassium chloride administration and can result in harm to the patient.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.
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