ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Take vital signs
- B. Assess lochia
- C. Massage the fundus
- D. Give oxytocin IV bolus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.
2. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?
- A. Thyroid disease
- B. Allergy to penicillin
- C. Impaired liver function
- D. Abnormal blood glucose levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Pale skin
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Adenosine
- C. Atropine
- D. Verapamil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.
5. What can cause a low pulse oximetry reading?
- A. Hyperthermia
- B. Increased hemoglobin level
- C. Inadequate peripheral circulation
- D. Low altitudes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inadequate peripheral circulation can cause a low pulse oximetry reading by limiting blood flow to the area being measured, leading to inaccurate oxygen saturation readings. Hyperthermia (choice A) is an elevated body temperature and does not directly affect pulse oximetry readings. An increased hemoglobin level (choice B) would actually lead to higher oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in normal or increased pulse oximetry readings. Low altitudes (choice D) typically do not cause low pulse oximetry readings unless there are other underlying conditions affecting oxygen levels.
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