a nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild persistent asthma and has been prescribed montelukast. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Montelukast works as a leukotriene receptor antagonist, reducing inflammation and mucus production, which helps prevent asthma attacks but is not used for acute treatment. It is important for the client to understand that montelukast should be taken regularly to manage asthma symptoms and should not be abruptly discontinued. Taking the medication before exercise is not a typical instruction for montelukast.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.

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