a nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel ap about caring for clients who have alzheimers disease which of the following information should t

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients who have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Explain procedures clearly and concisely to the client before initiating care
B. Encourage a client's engagement in appropriate activities to minimize emotional outbursts
C. Speak calmly and at a moderate volume to a client who is unable to form words or sentences
D. Provide supervision to prevent a client from becoming injured or lost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease are at risk of wandering and becoming lost. Providing supervision helps prevent them from getting injured or lost. Choice A is incorrect because extensive details may overwhelm clients with Alzheimer's. Choice B is incorrect because limiting activities can lead to boredom and behavioral issues. Choice C is incorrect because speaking calmly and at a moderate volume helps to reduce agitation and confusion in clients with Alzheimer's.

2. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. White blood cell count
C. Hemoglobin levels
D. Serum albumin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

3. What is the priority intervention when continuous bubbling is observed in the water seal chamber of a chest tube?

A. Check for an air leak
B. Continue monitoring as it is not normal
C. Replace the chest tube system
D. Tighten the tube connections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Check for an air leak.' Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Checking for an air leak is crucial to prevent respiratory complications. Choice B is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and requires immediate intervention to address the air leak. Choice C is incorrect as replacing the entire chest tube system is not the initial priority when an air leak is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because tightening tube connections may not address the underlying issue of an air leak and should not be the initial action taken in this situation.

4. What precaution should be advised to patients following cataract surgery?

A. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
B. Use warm compresses
C. Avoid NSAIDs
D. Avoid bright lights

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients who have undergone cataract surgery should wear dark glasses when outdoors to shield their eyes from light exposure, which can be uncomfortable or harmful during the recovery period. Using warm compresses (choice B) is not typically recommended after cataract surgery as it's more relevant for certain eye conditions. Avoiding NSAIDs (choice C) is advised to prevent bleeding complications, but it is not directly related to eye protection post-surgery. While avoiding bright lights (choice D) is crucial, wearing dark glasses provides a practical solution to achieve this, making choice A the most appropriate precaution.

5. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.