ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What should a healthcare provider teach a patient who has experienced an acute episode of gastritis?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Increase exercise to reduce stress
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in potassium. During an acute episode of gastritis, it is advisable to avoid foods high in potassium as they can exacerbate symptoms. Potassium-rich foods may irritate the stomach lining, leading to increased discomfort. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in sodium is not specifically related to managing gastritis. Increasing exercise to reduce stress is a good general recommendation but not directly related to managing gastritis symptoms. Drinking milk as a snack is not recommended for gastritis as dairy products can sometimes worsen symptoms due to their fat content.
2. What is an escharotomy and when is it performed?
- A. A surgical incision to release pressure in burn injuries
- B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from wounds
- C. An incision to improve circulation in tight skin after burns
- D. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the chest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical incision made to release pressure in a part of the body that has a deep burn and excessive swelling. This procedure is crucial in preventing further damage due to restricted blood flow and compromised circulation. Choice B is incorrect because it describes debridement, which is the removal of dead tissue from wounds. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specifically address the purpose of relieving pressure in burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a procedure more related to thoracentesis, which is the removal of excess fluid from the chest, typically the pleural space.
3. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients who have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Explain procedures clearly and concisely to the client before initiating care
- B. Encourage a client's engagement in appropriate activities to minimize emotional outbursts
- C. Speak calmly and at a moderate volume to a client who is unable to form words or sentences
- D. Provide supervision to prevent a client from becoming injured or lost
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease are at risk of wandering and becoming lost. Providing supervision helps prevent them from getting injured or lost. Choice A is incorrect because extensive details may overwhelm clients with Alzheimer's. Choice B is incorrect because limiting activities can lead to boredom and behavioral issues. Choice C is incorrect because speaking calmly and at a moderate volume helps to reduce agitation and confusion in clients with Alzheimer's.
4. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on ECG
- B. Prominent U waves on ECG
- C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
- D. ST elevation on ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.
5. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
- C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
- D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.
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