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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What is an escharotomy and when is it performed?
- A. A surgical incision to release pressure in burn injuries
- B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from wounds
- C. An incision to improve circulation in tight skin after burns
- D. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the chest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical incision made to release pressure in a part of the body that has a deep burn and excessive swelling. This procedure is crucial in preventing further damage due to restricted blood flow and compromised circulation. Choice B is incorrect because it describes debridement, which is the removal of dead tissue from wounds. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specifically address the purpose of relieving pressure in burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a procedure more related to thoracentesis, which is the removal of excess fluid from the chest, typically the pleural space.
2. When caring for a patient with hypokalemia, what should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Check for cardiac dysrhythmias
- C. Monitor for bradycardia
- D. Monitor for seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Answer: Muscle weakness is a common sign of hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for muscle weakness as potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, bradycardia, and even seizures in severe cases, muscle weakness is a more common and specific sign directly related to potassium levels.
3. A patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping. What should the nurse do?
- A. Increase the flow of the enema solution
- B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Stop the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment can help reduce the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution into the colon, allowing the patient to tolerate the procedure better. Increasing the flow of the solution (Choice A) can exacerbate the cramping. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) or stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not address the issue and could lead to incomplete treatment.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?
- A. Stomatitis
- B. Fatigue
- C. Wasting syndrome
- D. Lipodystrophy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.
5. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
- A. Synchronized cardioversion
- B. Defibrillation
- C. Pacing
- D. Medication administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Synchronized cardioversion. In ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat tachyarrhythmias where there is a pulse present. Defibrillation (choice B) is used in emergencies for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is more suitable for bradycardias or certain conduction abnormalities. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in stable cases or as an adjunct to other treatments, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
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