Nursing Elites

1. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on ECG
• B. Prominent U waves on ECG
• C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
• D. ST elevation on ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

2. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
• B. Severe nausea and vomiting
• C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
• D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

• A. Propofol
• B. Pancuronium
• C. Promethazine
• D. Pentoxifylline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.

4. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Increase potassium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (Choice C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.

5. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

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