ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Widened QRS complexes
- D. Tall T waves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.
2. A patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction needs immediate treatment. Which medication should be administered first?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
- C. Aminophylline IV
- D. Methylprednisolone IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by opening up the airways. During an allergic reaction causing wheezing, prompt relief is crucial, making Albuterol the first-line treatment. Choice B, Cromolyn via nebulizer, is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than providing immediate relief. Choice C, Aminophylline IV, is a bronchodilator with a slower onset of action compared to Albuterol. Choice D, Methylprednisolone IV, is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and is not the first-line treatment for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?
- A. Propofol
- B. Pancuronium
- C. Promethazine
- D. Pentoxifylline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.
4. What is the expected finding in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized swelling and redness
- C. Numbness and tingling
- D. Fever and infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the expected finding includes unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These are classic signs of compartment syndrome and indicate compromised blood flow and tissue perfusion, necessitating urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized swelling and redness, numbness and tingling, as well as fever and infection, are not typical findings associated with compartment syndrome.
5. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?
- A. Low sodium diet
- B. Potassium restricted diet
- C. High phosphorus diet
- D. High protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.
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