ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is caring for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has been taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hypertension.' Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium retention and potassium loss, leading to increased blood pressure. Weight loss (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, hyperglycemia is a common concern. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is also unlikely with prednisone use; instead, hypokalemia is a potential electrolyte imbalance.
2. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
- B. Place a pillow under the client's head during a seizure
- C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
- D. Position the client on their side during a seizure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has a seizure disorder is to position the client on their side during a seizure. This helps to prevent aspiration and ensures a patent airway. Keeping a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head during a seizure (Choice B) is also not advised as it can obstruct the airway. Administering diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures (Choice C) is not typically done at home without healthcare provider direction.
3. A patient is admitted with chest pain, possible acute coronary syndrome. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Get IV access
- C. Obtain cardiac enzymes
- D. Auscultate heart sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with chest pain, possible acute coronary syndrome, the nurse should administer sublingual nitroglycerin first. Nitroglycerin helps to vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart, and reducing cardiac workload. This can alleviate chest pain and decrease cardiac tissue damage in acute coronary syndrome. Getting IV access, obtaining cardiac enzymes, and auscultating heart sounds are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome, but administering nitroglycerin to relieve chest pain and improve blood flow takes precedence as it directly addresses the patient's symptoms and aims to prevent further cardiac damage.
4. What is the first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
- C. Start IV fluids
- D. Monitor for chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps to relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart, thereby reducing cardiac workload. This intervention aims to alleviate symptoms and prevent further cardiac damage. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice B) is important for diagnosing a myocardial infarction but is not the initial intervention for unstable angina. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) may be indicated in specific cases like hypovolemia but is not the primary intervention for unstable angina. Monitoring for chest pain (Choice D) is essential but taking action to alleviate the pain, like administering nitroglycerin, is the primary focus in the initial management of unstable angina.
5. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.
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