a nurse is caring for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and has been taking prednisone which of the following findings should the nurse identify a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has been taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hypertension.' Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium retention and potassium loss, leading to increased blood pressure. Weight loss (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, hyperglycemia is a common concern. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is also unlikely with prednisone use; instead, hypokalemia is a potential electrolyte imbalance.

2. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.

3. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.

4. A patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse needs electrical intervention. What is the appropriate action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, the appropriate action is synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing is typically used for bradycardias. Medication administration may be considered in stable ventricular tachycardia cases but electrical intervention is preferred for immediate correction in this scenario.

5. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

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