a nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has copd about nutrition which of the following instructions should the nurse include

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Eat three large meals daily
B. Consume high-calorie foods
C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
D. Drink fluids during meal time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.

2. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?

A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
C. BUN 8 mg/dL
D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.

4. What teaching should be provided to a patient following an escharotomy for burn injuries?

A. Monitor for infection
B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Avoid physical activity
D. Limit phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following an escharotomy for burn injuries, patients should be taught to monitor for infection and care for the incision site. Choice A is the correct answer because infection is a common risk after a procedure involving incisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake is not typically advised after an escharotomy; avoiding physical activity may vary depending on the individual's condition and should be guided by healthcare providers; and limiting phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day is not directly related to post-escharotomy care.

5. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.