Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat three large meals daily
• B. Consume high-calorie foods
• C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
• D. Drink fluids during meal time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.

2. What is the priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading?

• A. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread blood glucose could lead to hypoglycemia due to an unnecessary dose. Monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia is crucial for prompt intervention if blood glucose levels drop dangerously low. Option B, monitoring for hyperglycemia, is incorrect in this situation as the concern is over-treatment with insulin causing hypoglycemia. Option C, administering glucose IV, is only necessary if hypoglycemia occurs. Option D, documenting the incident, is important for reporting and learning purposes but is not the immediate priority when the focus is on patient safety and preventing complications.

3. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

• A. Monitor urine specific gravity for values below 1.005
• B. Monitor for increased thirst
• C. Monitor serum albumin levels
• D. Monitor blood pressure closely

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.

4. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
• B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
• C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
• D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

• A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
• B. The circumference of the client's upper arm has increased by 10%
• C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
• D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.

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