Nursing Elites

1. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?

• A. Limit protein intake
• B. Limit potassium intake
• C. Restrict sodium intake
• D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.

2. A client with Ménière's disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Maintain strict bed rest
• B. Restrict fluid intake to the morning hours
• C. Administer aspirin
• D. Provide a low sodium diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière's disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. This helps reduce fluid retention, which can alleviate the symptoms of Ménière's disease. Maintaining strict bed rest is not necessary and can lead to deconditioning. Restricting fluid intake to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying cause of Ménière's disease. Administering aspirin is not indicated for Ménière's disease and can potentially worsen symptoms.

3. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

4. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Seizures
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

5. What should be monitored for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized redness and swelling
• C. Fever and infection
• D. Muscle weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome that indicate inadequate blood flow to the affected area. These symptoms are crucial to monitor as they signify a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling may be present but are not the primary indicators. Fever and infection are also not specific to compartment syndrome, and muscle weakness and fatigue are not typically prominent symptoms of this condition.

Similar Questions