ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the most likely cause of continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube?
- A. An air leak
- B. A blockage in the chest tube
- C. Normal chest tube function
- D. Drainage from the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube usually indicates an air leak. An air leak can disrupt the negative pressure required for the chest tube to function properly, leading to inadequate drainage and potential complications. A blockage in the chest tube would typically result in decreased or absent drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Normal chest tube function does not involve continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Drainage from the chest tube may lead to fluid moving into the drainage system, but it would not cause continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
2. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Increased risk of bleeding
- C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
- D. Increased risk of cardiac complications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.
3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Monitor for anemia
- C. Monitor for dehydration
- D. Monitor for bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.
4. What is the priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain IV access
- C. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing cardiac workload, and improving blood supply to the heart muscle, thus relieving pain and enhancing blood flow to the heart. While obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids, it is not the priority over addressing pain and improving blood flow. Checking the patient's cardiac enzymes is crucial for diagnosis and ongoing management but not the immediate priority when the patient is in pain. Administering aspirin is also a vital intervention in acute coronary syndrome, but in this scenario, it is not the priority action compared to providing immediate pain relief and enhancing blood flow to the heart.
5. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
- C. Eat three large meals per day
- D. Restrict protein intake to 1 g/kg/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.
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