a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible complication of TPN administration?

A. Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
C. Weight is the same as the day before
D. Bilateral posterior lung sounds are diminished

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities. Pitting edema can indicate fluid overload, which is a potential complication of TPN administration. Choice B, hypoactive bowel sounds, is more indicative of a gastrointestinal issue rather than a complication of TPN. Choice C, weight remaining the same, is expected to remain stable with proper TPN administration. Choice D, diminished lung sounds, is not directly related to TPN administration and is more suggestive of a respiratory issue.

2. A patient with GERD is being taught by a nurse. What should the patient avoid?

A. Avoid mint and pepper
B. Increase water intake during meals
C. Eat frequent small meals
D. Consume more spicy foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods as they can trigger reflux. Choice B ('Increase water intake during meals') is not recommended for GERD patients as it can worsen symptoms by distending the stomach. Choice C ('Eat frequent small meals') is beneficial for GERD patients to prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice D ('Consume more spicy foods') is incorrect as spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms.

3. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?

A. Limit protein intake
B. Limit potassium intake
C. Restrict sodium intake
D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.

4. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.

5. What are the expected symptoms of a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
B. Sudden loss of consciousness
C. Severe headache and confusion
D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' In a thrombotic stroke, a clot blocks a cerebral artery, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choice B, 'Sudden loss of consciousness,' is more characteristic of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice C, 'Severe headache and confusion,' are often associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than thrombotic stroke. Choice D, 'Loss of sensation in the affected limb,' is not a typical symptom pattern for a thrombotic stroke, which usually presents with motor deficits.