ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. If a nurse misread a glucose reading as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered insulin, what should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
- B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- C. Administer glucose IV
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the nurse administered insulin based on an incorrect glucose reading, which could lead to a drop in blood sugar levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial to prevent any adverse effects on the patient's health. Choice B, monitoring for hyperglycemia, is incorrect as the administration of insulin can lead to low blood sugar levels, not high. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not the immediate action needed as monitoring for hypoglycemia comes first. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the initial priority when patient safety is at risk.
2. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Increased risk of bleeding
- C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
- D. Increased risk of cardiac complications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.
3. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.
4. What intervention is needed for a patient with a chest tube and an air leak?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Replace the chest tube
- C. Clamp the chest tube
- D. Continue to monitor the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with a chest tube and an air leak is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step helps prevent air leaks and ensures the proper functioning of the chest tube. Choice B, replacing the chest tube, is not necessary as tightening the connections should be attempted first. Clamping the chest tube (Choice C) is not recommended as it can lead to complications by obstructing the drainage system. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (Choice D) without taking action may result in worsening of the air leak. Therefore, the priority intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Exercise reduces the risk for hypoglycemia.
- B. I can skip my insulin when I don't eat.
- C. I can drink 4 oz of soda if my blood sugar is low.
- D. Diabetic pills don't cause hypoglycemia; only insulin does.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.
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