Nursing Elites

1. What is the first nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Increase fluids to prevent dehydration
• C. Obtain cardiac enzymes
• D. Get IV access and auscultate heart sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac workload. This action aims to relieve chest pain promptly and prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Increasing fluids is not the initial priority for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining cardiac enzymes is important for diagnosis but is not the first action in managing acute symptoms. Getting IV access and auscultating heart sounds are important interventions, but they come after administering sublingual nitroglycerin in the management of acute coronary syndrome.

2. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
• D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.
• B. Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a high protein food.
• D. Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.

4. What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake to 3 g/day
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.

5. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

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