ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the first nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Increase fluids to prevent dehydration
- C. Obtain cardiac enzymes
- D. Get IV access and auscultate heart sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority nursing action for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac workload. This action aims to relieve chest pain promptly and prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Increasing fluids is not the initial priority for a patient with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining cardiac enzymes is important for diagnosis but is not the first action in managing acute symptoms. Getting IV access and auscultating heart sounds are important interventions, but they come after administering sublingual nitroglycerin in the management of acute coronary syndrome.
2. A client with Ménière's disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Maintain strict bed rest
- B. Restrict fluid intake to the morning hours
- C. Administer aspirin
- D. Provide a low sodium diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière's disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. This helps reduce fluid retention, which can alleviate the symptoms of Ménière's disease. Maintaining strict bed rest is not necessary and can lead to deconditioning. Restricting fluid intake to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying cause of Ménière's disease. Administering aspirin is not indicated for Ménière's disease and can potentially worsen symptoms.
3. What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.
4. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.
5. A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?
- A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
- B. Crepitus around the insertion site
- C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
- D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access