a nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone siadh and is receiving 3 sodium chloride via continuous iv which

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ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?

A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
C. BUN 8 mg/dL
D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.

2. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.

3. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. White blood cell count
C. Hemoglobin levels
D. Serum albumin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

4. What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Increase protein intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.

5. What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves and prominent U waves
B. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes
C. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes
D. Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.