Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?

• A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
• B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
• C. BUN 8 mg/dL
• D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.

2. During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, what is the purpose of this procedure?

• A. To release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area
• B. To remove dead tissue from the burn area
• C. To improve breathing by reducing skin tightness
• D. To prevent infection in the burned area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, the purpose of this procedure is to release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area. This intervention is crucial in severe burns where the formation of eschar (dead tissue) can lead to increased pressure, compromising circulation and potentially causing further tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because escharotomy specifically aims to address pressure and circulation issues in severe burn injuries, rather than removing dead tissue, improving breathing, or preventing infection.

3. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

4. What symptoms are associated with a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Loss of motor function with nausea
• D. Severe headache and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A thrombotic stroke presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body due to a clot blocking blood flow to the brain. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke with sudden symptoms like loss of consciousness (Choice B), and from other conditions like migraine, which may present with severe headache and vomiting (Choice D). Nausea (Choice C) is not typically a primary symptom associated with a thrombotic stroke.

5. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Seizures
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

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