ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What is the first action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Get IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Obtain cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the initial priority action for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps in relieving symptoms and preventing further damage to the heart. Establishing IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome but are not the first actions to be taken. IV access may be needed for administering medications or fluids, auscultating heart sounds helps in assessing the heart's function, and obtaining cardiac enzymes aids in diagnosing a heart attack.
2. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Increase the flow of enema solution
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Stop the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.
3. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?
- A. Synchronized cardioversion
- B. Defibrillation
- C. Medication administration
- D. Pacing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat unstable tachyarrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Choice B, defibrillation, is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Choice C, medication administration, may not provide immediate correction for unstable ventricular tachycardia. Choice D, pacing, is not the first-line treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
4. What adverse effect might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy?
- A. Seizures
- B. JVD and fatigue
- C. SOB and JVD
- D. S3 heart sound
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct adverse effect that might occur in a patient receiving radiation after a mastectomy is the development of an S3 heart sound. This can result from decreased pumping ability following mastectomy and radiation treatment. Choice A, seizures, is incorrect as seizures are not a common adverse effect of radiation after a mastectomy. Choice B, JVD and fatigue, is incorrect as while fatigue can be a common side effect, JVD (Jugular Venous Distention) is not typically associated with radiation after a mastectomy. Choice C, SOB (Shortness of Breath) and JVD, is incorrect as while shortness of breath can occur, JVD is not a typical adverse effect of radiation post-mastectomy.
5. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Increased risk of bleeding
- C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
- D. Increased risk of cardiac complications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.
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