Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority action for a patient experiencing chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Administer aspirin
• C. Obtain IV access
• D. Check cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This medication helps to dilate the blood vessels, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle, providing immediate relief for chest pain in acute coronary syndrome. Administering aspirin is also crucial in the early management of acute coronary syndrome to prevent further clot formation. However, in terms of immediate symptom relief, nitroglycerin takes precedence over aspirin. Obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids but is not the priority over providing immediate relief for chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes is essential for diagnosing acute coronary syndrome but is not the immediate priority when a patient is experiencing chest pain.

2. A client scheduled for electromyography (EMG) will have small needle electrodes inserted into the muscles. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.
• B. Momentary flushing will occur at the beginning of the procedure.
• C. You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.
• D. You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to assess muscle weakness and nerve responses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because radioisotope is not used in EMG, flushing is not a typical occurrence, and claustrophobia is more relevant for imaging procedures like MRI or CT scans, not EMG.

3. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

5. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and pepper
• B. Consume liquids with meals
• C. Increase fluid intake with meals
• D. Eat large meals before bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.

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