what lab value should be prioritized in a patient with hiv
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

2. What is the initial nursing action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority initial action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (choice B) and cardiac enzymes (choice C) are important assessments but are not the first priority when managing acute chest pain. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is essential for administering medications and fluids, but administering sublingual nitroglycerin takes precedence in the initial management of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.

3. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients who have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease are at risk of wandering and becoming lost. Providing supervision helps prevent them from getting injured or lost. Choice A is incorrect because extensive details may overwhelm clients with Alzheimer's. Choice B is incorrect because limiting activities can lead to boredom and behavioral issues. Choice C is incorrect because speaking calmly and at a moderate volume helps to reduce agitation and confusion in clients with Alzheimer's.

4. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

5. What should a healthcare professional monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome. In this condition, increased pressure within a muscle compartment impairs blood flow, leading to severe pain that is not relieved by usual measures, pallor from decreased blood flow, and pulselessness due to compromised circulation. These signs indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Localized redness and swelling (Choice B) are more characteristic of inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and signs of infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Loss of deep tendon reflexes (Choice D) is associated with conditions affecting the nervous system, not compartment syndrome.

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