what lab value should be prioritized in a patient with hiv
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

2. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

3. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

4. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following referrals should the nurse plan to initiate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dietary services. Referring the client to dietary services is essential for managing nutrition, including monitoring sodium, potassium, and protein intake, which are crucial aspects of managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Respiratory therapy (choice A) focuses on managing respiratory conditions, which are not directly related to CKD. Hospice care (choice B) is not appropriate for a new diagnosis of CKD as it is designed for end-of-life care. Occupational therapy (choice C) is beneficial for improving activities of daily living but is not the priority referral for a new CKD diagnosis.

5. What is the first-line treatment for a patient experiencing wheezing and coughing due to an allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it quickly opens the airways, providing rapid relief. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a systemic corticosteroid that may be used in severe cases to reduce inflammation but is not the initial treatment for acute wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that is more commonly used for prophylaxis rather than acute relief in allergic conditions. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used now due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity, making it less preferred than Albuterol for initial treatment of wheezing.

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