what dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre dialysis end stage kidney disease
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

3. What are the common manifestations of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of compartment syndrome are unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate compromised blood flow and neurovascular compromise, necessitating immediate medical intervention. Redness and swelling (Choice B) are more commonly associated with inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Swelling and redness (Choice D) are general signs that can be seen in various conditions and are not specific to compartment syndrome.

4. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

5. What is the first action when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the first action should be to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step is crucial as it can often resolve an air leak causing continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system would not address the underlying issue of loose connections and may not be necessary. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications if the air leak is not addressed promptly.

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