Nursing Elites

1. What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Increase protein intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.

2. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
• B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
• C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
• D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.

4. What is the first medication to give to a patient with wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps to quickly open the airways, providing immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects but is not the initial medication for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that can be used for prevention but is not the first choice for acute symptom relief. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator with a narrow therapeutic window and more side effects compared to Albuterol, making it a less preferred option as the initial treatment.

5. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Seizures
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

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