a nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing fobt for the screening of colorectal cancer which of the following statements should the

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

2. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Monitor for muscle weakness
B. Monitor for bradycardia
C. Check deep tendon reflexes
D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
B. The circumference of the client's upper arm has increased by 10%
C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.

4. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Serum albumin levels
C. Hemoglobin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

5. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.