a nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing fobt for the screening of colorectal cancer which of the following statements should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

2. What is the initial nursing action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority initial action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (choice B) and cardiac enzymes (choice C) are important assessments but are not the first priority when managing acute chest pain. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is essential for administering medications and fluids, but administering sublingual nitroglycerin takes precedence in the initial management of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.

3. What is the first nursing action for a patient admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action for a patient admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and relieve chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may not be necessary unless indicated by the patient's condition. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice D) is important but is not the initial action needed to address the patient's acute symptoms.

4. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

5. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms are classic signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition characterized by reduced circulation in a closed muscle compartment. The pain is typically severe and disproportionate to the injury, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage and loss of function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the hallmark symptoms of compartment syndrome. Localized swelling and redness may be present but are not specific to this condition. Fever and swelling are more indicative of inflammation or infection, while weakness and fatigue are nonspecific and do not typically occur in isolation in compartment syndrome.

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