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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What are the common manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Severe headache and confusion
- D. Seizures and convulsions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. A thrombotic stroke is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms due to interrupted blood flow in the brain. This interruption results in manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache, confusion, seizures, and convulsions are more commonly associated with conditions other than thrombotic strokes.
2. What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual onset over minutes to hours
- B. Numbness on one side of the body
- C. Associated with a loss of consciousness
- D. Associated with seizures and convulsions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thrombotic strokes typically have a gradual onset over minutes to hours as they result from a clot obstructing blood flow. Choice B, numbness on one side of the body, is more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke rather than specifically a thrombotic stroke. Choice C, loss of consciousness, is not a defining characteristic of a thrombotic stroke. Choice D, seizures and convulsions, are more commonly seen in hemorrhagic strokes rather than thrombotic strokes.
3. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
- D. Increase the flow of the enema solution
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.
4. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
- C. Widened QRS complex
- D. Prominent U waves on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.
5. What is the purpose of an escharotomy in burn management?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- C. To prevent infection in burn injuries
- D. To remove excess fluid from burn wounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.
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