a patient reports abdominal cramping during an enema administration what action should the nurse take

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. A patient reports abdominal cramping during an enema administration. What action should the nurse take?

A. Increase the flow of the enema
B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
C. Stop the enema procedure
D. Remove the enema tubing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during an enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the container helps to relieve cramping by slowing the flow of the solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow (Choice A) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure (Choice C) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (Choice D) is not the initial action indicated for cramping; adjusting the height is the more appropriate intervention.

2. What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized redness and swelling
C. Fever and infection
D. Loss of sensation in the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Unrelieved pain is a key characteristic, indicating tissue ischemia due to increased pressure within a closed anatomic space. Pallor results from compromised blood flow, and pulselessness indicates severe ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized redness and swelling, fever and infection, and loss of sensation are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

3. A client scheduled for electromyography (EMG) will have small needle electrodes inserted into the muscles. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.
B. Momentary flushing will occur at the beginning of the procedure.
C. You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.
D. You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to assess muscle weakness and nerve responses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because radioisotope is not used in EMG, flushing is not a typical occurrence, and claustrophobia is more relevant for imaging procedures like MRI or CT scans, not EMG.

4. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.

5. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.