Nursing Elites

1. What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake to 3 g/day
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.

2. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?

• A. Limit protein intake
• B. Limit potassium intake
• C. Restrict sodium intake
• D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.

3. A nurse administers insulin for a misread glucose level. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
• C. Monitor for hyperkalemia
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse administers insulin for a misread glucose level, they should monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin lowers blood sugar levels, so the patient may experience hypoglycemia if given insulin unnecessarily. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves observing for symptoms such as shakiness, sweating, dizziness, confusion, and palpitations. Choices B and C are incorrect because administering insulin for a misread glucose level would lower blood sugar levels, resulting in hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia or hyperkalemia. Choice D is not the immediate priority; the focus should be on patient safety and monitoring for potential adverse effects of the unnecessary insulin.

4. What is the expected ECG finding in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Widened QRS complexes on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.

5. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

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