ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Monitor for bradycardia
- C. Check deep tendon reflexes
- D. Monitor for hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.
2. A nurse is administering insulin to a patient after misreading their glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
- B. Monitor for hyperkalemia
- C. Administer glucose IV
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread glucose level can lead to hypoglycemia due to the unnecessary lowering of blood sugar levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves assessing the patient's blood glucose levels frequently, observing for signs and symptoms such as shakiness, confusion, sweating, and administering glucose if hypoglycemia occurs. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as insulin administration typically lowers potassium levels. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not the immediate action needed as the patient could potentially develop hypoglycemia from the excess insulin. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a potential hypoglycemic event.
3. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is hyperventilating and has the following ABG results: pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. Hyperventilation leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide, causing a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in pH levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by high PaCO2 and low pH. Metabolic acidosis is associated with low HCO3- levels and low pH. Metabolic alkalosis is marked by high HCO3- levels and high pH. In this case, the ABG results indicate respiratory alkalosis.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?
- A. Encourage a high-protein diet
- B. Increase the client's fluid intake
- C. Administer diuretics
- D. Weigh the client twice a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.
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