ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?
- A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
- B. Crepitus around the insertion site
- C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
- D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place several pillows behind the client's head
- B. Place the client in a Sim's position
- C. Keep the client's neck in a midline position
- D. Maintain flexion of the client's hips at a 90° angle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the client's neck in a midline position is crucial for managing increased intracranial pressure. This position helps optimize blood flow and minimizes the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing several pillows behind the client's head (Choice A) may inadvertently elevate the head, potentially worsening ICP. Placing the client in a Sim's position (Choice B) or maintaining flexion of the client's hips at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP.
3. What dietary changes should a patient with GERD make to manage their symptoms?
- A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
- B. Eat large, frequent meals
- C. Consume liquids with meals
- D. Eat small, frequent meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid foods like mint and spicy dishes as they can trigger symptoms by increasing gastric acid secretion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large, frequent meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting more pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased reflux, and eating small, frequent meals is the recommended approach to reduce symptoms and manage GERD.
4. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?
- A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Seizures
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.
5. What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.
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