a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.

2. What dietary recommendations should be provided to a patient with GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These types of foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as eating large meals before bed can increase the likelihood of acid reflux due to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can cause distension in the stomach, potentially leading to reflux. Choice D is not directly related to GERD, as foods high in potassium are generally healthy and not specifically problematic for GERD patients.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.

4. What are the expected manifestations in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestation in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke is sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body. This is due to the blockage of a blood vessel by a clot, leading to a lack of blood flow to a specific part of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure are more commonly associated with hemorrhagic strokes. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking is often seen in ischemic strokes affecting language areas, not specifically in thrombotic strokes. Loss of sensation in the affected limb is more indicative of sensory nerve damage rather than the motor deficits seen in thrombotic strokes.

5. What is the correct action when a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient reports cramping during enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. Lowering the height reduces the pressure and speed of the solution entering the rectum, alleviating cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can worsen the discomfort. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there are severe complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the immediate cramping issue and could still cause discomfort to the patient.

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