ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What should be done if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
- D. Increase the flow of the enema solution
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the appropriate action is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment helps alleviate the cramping by reducing the pressure of the solution entering the colon. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) is not necessary unless there are other complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may not address the immediate discomfort caused by cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Axillary temperature 37.2°C (99°F)
- B. Apical pulse 100/min
- C. Respiratory rate 30/min
- D. Blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should prioritize airway and breathing in a client with a traumatic brain injury. An increased respiratory rate may indicate CO2 retention, which could lead to increased intracranial pressure. Choice A, axillary temperature 37.2°C (99°F), is within normal range and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice B, apical pulse 100/min, is slightly elevated but not as critical as respiratory distress in this scenario. Choice D, blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg, is also within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention compared to the respiratory rate.
3. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. ST elevation
- D. Wide QRS complexes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.
4. What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.
5. What dietary changes should be implemented for a patient with GERD?
- A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
- B. Eat large meals before bedtime
- C. Consume liquids with meals
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods because they can increase gastric acid production, exacerbating symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms due to lying down with a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, promoting acid reflux. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking milk as a snack is not recommended for GERD patients, as it may temporarily soothe symptoms but can ultimately stimulate acid production.
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