a nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes after maintaining the clients ai
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

2. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

4. A nurse misreads a glucose level and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the nurse administered insulin based on a misread glucose level, which could lead to hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin action lowering blood glucose levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia allows for prompt recognition and intervention if blood glucose levels drop significantly. Choice B, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is incorrect as administering insulin would not cause hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not appropriate at this time since the patient's blood glucose level is already elevated. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the priority at this moment when patient safety is at risk due to potential hypoglycemia.

5. A patient is receiving discharge instructions for GERD. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with GERD should avoid activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as bending at the waist, as this can lead to reflux. Choice A is incorrect because medications for GERD are usually taken with water, not citrus juices. Choice B is incorrect as having a bedtime snack can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because lying down after meals can also exacerbate reflux due to the effects of gravity.

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