Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients who have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Explain procedures clearly and concisely to the client before initiating care
• B. Encourage a client's engagement in appropriate activities to minimize emotional outbursts
• C. Speak calmly and at a moderate volume to a client who is unable to form words or sentences
• D. Provide supervision to prevent a client from becoming injured or lost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease are at risk of wandering and becoming lost. Providing supervision helps prevent them from getting injured or lost. Choice A is incorrect because extensive details may overwhelm clients with Alzheimer's. Choice B is incorrect because limiting activities can lead to boredom and behavioral issues. Choice C is incorrect because speaking calmly and at a moderate volume helps to reduce agitation and confusion in clients with Alzheimer's.

3. A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?

• A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
• D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.

4. A patient with GERD is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid mint and pepper
• B. Increase fluid intake before meals
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Avoid drinking water with meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid foods like mint and pepper, as these can help reduce gastric acid secretion and alleviate symptoms. Mint and pepper are known to relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased reflux. Increasing fluid intake before meals (choice B) may worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach. Eating three large meals per day (choice C) can also aggravate GERD because large meals can lead to increased gastric pressure and reflux. Avoiding drinking water with meals (choice D) is generally recommended for GERD; however, the most crucial advice in this case is to avoid mint and pepper for better symptom management.

5. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?

• A. Low sodium diet
• B. Potassium restricted diet
• C. High phosphorus diet
• D. High protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.

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