Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

2. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bedtime
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. Mint and spicy foods can aggravate GERD symptoms by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter and increasing stomach acid production, leading to acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms as lying down can promote acid reflux. Consuming liquids with meals can also exacerbate GERD by increasing stomach distension and pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Eating three large meals per day can overload the stomach and trigger acid reflux episodes in patients with GERD.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?

• A. Flail chest
• B. Hemothorax
• C. Pulmonary contusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.

4. What is the priority action if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the solution container
• B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
• C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During enema administration, if a patient experiences abdominal cramping, the priority action is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help relieve abdominal cramping by reducing the flow rate of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases of severe discomfort or complications, but adjusting the height of the solution container should be the initial response. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not address the immediate need to alleviate the cramping.

5. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following referrals should the nurse plan to initiate?

• A. Respiratory therapy
• B. Hospice care
• C. Occupational therapy
• D. Dietary services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dietary services. Referring the client to dietary services is essential for managing nutrition, including monitoring sodium, potassium, and protein intake, which are crucial aspects of managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Respiratory therapy (choice A) focuses on managing respiratory conditions, which are not directly related to CKD. Hospice care (choice B) is not appropriate for a new diagnosis of CKD as it is designed for end-of-life care. Occupational therapy (choice C) is beneficial for improving activities of daily living but is not the priority referral for a new CKD diagnosis.

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