ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What are the expected signs of compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Fever, swelling, and redness
- C. Muscle cramps and weakness
- D. Redness and itching
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to inadequate blood supply. This results in severe pain that is unrelieved by rest or medication, pallor due to compromised blood flow, and pulselessness as a late sign of severe ischemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fever, swelling, and redness are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Muscle cramps and weakness may occur due to other conditions, but they are not primary indicators of compartment syndrome. Redness and itching are also not commonly associated with compartment syndrome.
2. What is the purpose of an escharotomy?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To reduce pain in the affected area
- C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- D. To prevent infection from spreading
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.
3. What dietary instructions should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase protein intake to 1g/kg/day
- C. Increase sodium intake
- D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders in patients with kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can burden the kidneys. Increasing sodium intake is usually discouraged due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention in kidney disease. Avoiding potassium-rich foods is more relevant in advanced kidney disease stages when potassium levels are high, not in pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.
4. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?
- A. Synchronized cardioversion
- B. Defibrillation
- C. Medication administration
- D. Pacing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat unstable tachyarrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Choice B, defibrillation, is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Choice C, medication administration, may not provide immediate correction for unstable ventricular tachycardia. Choice D, pacing, is not the first-line treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
- C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.
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