Nursing Elites

1. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.

2. A nurse misreads a glucose reading and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 instead of 120. What should the nurse monitor the patient for?

• A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should monitor the patient for hypoglycemia due to the administration of excess insulin. Administering insulin for a blood glucose level of 210 instead of 120 can lead to a rapid drop in blood sugar levels, causing hypoglycemia. Option A is incorrect as hyperglycemia is high blood sugar, which is unlikely in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as administering glucose IV would worsen the hypoglycemia. Option D is not the immediate priority; patient safety and monitoring for adverse effects take precedence.

3. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.

4. What is the first medication to give to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction due to its rapid action in opening airways. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for prevention rather than acute treatment. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in allergic reactions.

5. A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?

• A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
• D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.

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