ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. A nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. What should be included in the care plan?
- A. Monitor serum albumin levels
- B. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- C. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
- D. Teach the patient to avoid alcohol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum albumin levels. In patients with diabetes insipidus, monitoring serum albumin levels is essential to assess for dehydration and nutritional deficits. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Restricting protein intake, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching the patient to avoid alcohol are interventions that may be relevant for other medical conditions but are not specific to addressing the needs of a patient with diabetes insipidus.
2. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. ST elevation
- D. Wide QRS complexes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.
3. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.
4. A patient with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does this indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. A blocked chest tube
- C. Drainage from the site
- D. Blood clot in the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as lung collapse. A blocked chest tube would typically result in absent or fluctuating bubbling. Drainage from the site would be observed in the collection chamber, not the water seal chamber. A blood clot in the chest tube would lead to cessation of drainage.
5. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.
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