what are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with hiv
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

2. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

4. What intervention should be done if continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step helps address an air leak in the system, which could compromise its effectiveness. Choice B (Replace the chest tube system) is not the initial step and may be unnecessary if the issue can be resolved by tightening connections. Choice C (Clamp the chest tube) is incorrect as clamping the chest tube could lead to a dangerous increase in pressure within the system. Choice D (Continue monitoring the chest tube) is also not the best immediate action to take when continuous bubbling is present, as prompt intervention is needed to prevent complications.

5. What are the manifestations of osteomyelitis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Osteomyelitis often manifests as localized pain, swelling, and erythema due to infection in the bone. These symptoms are characteristic of inflammation and infection in the bone tissue. Elevated white blood cells (Choice B) may be present as part of the body's immune response to the infection but are not specific manifestations of osteomyelitis. Elevated calcium levels (Choice C) and low potassium levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with osteomyelitis.

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What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
What dietary changes should be implemented for a patient with GERD?
A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

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